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Assume that $f_{\mu}(x)=\mu \cdot x \cdot(1-x)$. Show that if $1 \leq \mu \leq 3$, then $f_{\mu}^{n}(x) \rightarrow 1-\frac{1}{\mu}$ as $n \rightarrow \infty$ for all $0<x<1$.
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