Get Help From Experts in Data Science and Mathematics
ePortfolios |STEM Gender Equality | ZOOM | Slack | Spreading Mathematical Happiness

You can support MathsGee with your DONATION

0 like 0 dislike
35 views
Is it true that $\lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{k^2} = \frac{\pi^2}{6}$ ?
by Bronze Status (8,657 points) | 35 views

1 Answer

0 like 0 dislike
T1=1

T2= 1/2

T3= 1/9

T4= 1/16

Hence as n tends to infinity Tn gets very small, and summation of terms approaches as certain value.
by Diamond (40,360 points)

Related questions

0 like 0 dislike
1 answer
asked Aug 8, 2019 by Tedsf Diamond (53,882 points) | 28 views

Welcome to MathsGee Q&A Bank, Africa’s largest personalized FREE Study Help network that helps people find answers to problems and connect with experts for improved outcomes.


Get help from experts - simply ask your question


You can Support MathsGee with your DONATION

Enter your email address:

13,102 questions
10,327 answers
101 comments
11,185 users